“Bribery is not a victimless crime.”
It is a common sentence in DOJ FCPA talking points (see here for instance).
If bribery is not a victimless crime, then why do FCPA fines and penalties simply go directly into the U.S. Treasury? Why are there generally no efforts to identify the victims of FCPA violations and to allow those victims to pursue legal remedies? As highlighted in this post, the U.S. government actually identified certain victims of Och-Ziff’s bribery schemes, but later backed off this determination perhaps because it complicated the DOJ’s efforts to resolve the matter.